New Year's Grammar Grouch

Granted, in English we seldom differentiate between the direct and indirect object, but we do retain a distinct difference in pronouns for subject and object. The problem is, nobody wants to use it when we come to the various forms of the word “who.”
We generally use it as pronoun, but because it indicates an unknown person, folks get confused. It’s really not that hard. I ask you is pretty obvious, no? The reverse is you ask me. Notice what happens to “I” becoming “me”. One is for the subject of the sentence — what’s this about? The other is the object — what is the recipient the action? But just because “who” rhymes with “you” is no cause to think they take the same form. We could make it really clear if we make it all a little silly so it becomes obvious.
You ask you.
I ask me.
He asks him.
She asks her.
Who asks whom?
Now was that so hard? If you are using “who” as a pronoun for the subject, it remains in that form. When “who” becomes the object, it changes shape to “whom.” If you need a clue, use the masculine third person he and him as an indicator.
Addenda: Just now, after posting this, I ran into something related. Try to keep in mind, despite the political correctness idiocy, in the English language the masculine is inclusive. That is, when you don’t know which gender is precisely applicable, use the masculine. This is reflected in the various forms of “who”. So:
who’s = who is
whose = belonging to whom
It’s the same is he’s and his.
It matters.